I have a question about brane polarisation. In the most famous cases I know of--the original giant D2 brane of Myers, the Polchinski-Strassler resolution of the $\mathcal{N}=1^*$ IR singularity, and the KPV metastable state corresponding to an NS5 brane carrying anti-D3 charge, the lower dimensional brane charge carried by the blown up brane is described by a magnetic field strength. For example, in the original Myers calculation, the D0 charge of the D2 brane is given by $\int_{S^2} F \propto N$.

I'm confused because in 1006.3587 Klebanov and Pufu essentially repeat the KPV analysis for an M-theory version of the Klebanov-Strassler solution. Here they add an electric field strength, $F_{01} \propto \mathcal{E}$. They calculate the brane potential in terms of the electric field $\mathcal{E}$, and then preform a Legendre transformation to get the potential in terms of the anti-F1 charge (which they call $p$).

Why do they take a different approach from the other examples of the Myers effect? Are the two equivalent, or different for an important reason that I don't understand?

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2015-02-01 12:19 (UTC), posted by SE-user Surgical Commander