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Proof for the Mass gap for sine-Gordon action with $g \cos(\Phi)$

+ 5 like - 0 dislike
2742 views

This is the sine-Gordon action: $$ \frac{1}{4\pi} \int_{ \mathcal{M}^2} dt \; dx \; k \partial_t \Phi \partial_x \Phi - v \partial_x \Phi \partial_x \Phi + g \cos(\ell_{}^{} \cdot\Phi_{}) $$ Here $\mathcal{M}^2$ is a 1+1 dimensional spacetime, where 1D space is a $S^1$ circle of length $L$.

At $g=0$ : it is a chiral boson theory with zero mass, gapless scalar boson $\Phi$.

At large $g$ : It seems to be well-known that at large coupling $g$ of the sine-Gordon equation, the scalar boson $\Phi$ will have a mass gap.

Q1: What is the original Ref which states and proves this statement about the nonzero (or large) mass gap for large $g$?

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Q2: What does the mass gap $m$ scale like in terms of other quantities (like $L$, $g$, etc)?

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NOTE: I find S Coleman has discussion in

(1)"Aspects of Symmetry: Selected Erice Lectures" by Sidney Coleman

and this paper

(2)Quantum sine-Gordon equation as the massive Thirring model - Phys. Rev. D 11, 2088 by Sidney Coleman

But I am not convinced that Coleman shows it explicitly. I read these, but could someone point out explicitly and explain it, how does he(or someone else) rigorously prove this mass gap?

Here Eq.(17) of this reference does a quadratic expansion to show the mass gap $m \simeq \sqrt{\Delta^2+\#(\frac{g}{L})^2}$ with $\Delta \simeq \sqrt{ \# g k^2 v}/(\# k)$, perhaps there are even more mathematical rigorous way to prove the mass gap with a full cosine term?

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-06-04 08:00 (UCT), posted by SE-user Idear
asked Jun 4, 2014 in Theoretical Physics by wonderich (1,400 points) [ no revision ]
Via bosonization technique you can prove that the sine Gordon model is equivalent to the neutral sector of the massive thirring model. With this technique you can also calculate exactly the correlation functions and see directly that they fall exponentially with distance so that the theory has mass gap. See also this paper by Mandelstam journals.aps.org/prd/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevD.11.3026

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2014-06-04 08:00 (UCT), posted by SE-user TwoBs

@ TwoBs, does that correlator argument have any β dependence of cos(βΦ)? In S Coleman, there is some discussion when it is Thirring model, when it is energy unbounded from below, when it is just a free massive Fermion model.

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