Are non-perturbative effects (solitons) classical or quantum effects (corrections) ? (examples ?)
My confusion stems from the fact that, for instance, an instanton is a classical solution of the equations of motion. Why is it said to be a quantum correction then? At which point does $\hbar$ enter the game? (the problem, at least for me, stems from taking always $\hbar = 1$).
This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2016-09-04 15:25 (UTC), posted by SE-user BLS