Earlier, I asked here whether one can have spontaneous breaking of the Lorentz symmetry and was shown a Lorentz invariant term that can drive the vacuum to not be Lorentz invariant. How relaxed are the assumptions in the CPT theorem? Can one have the theorem to be valid for a Lorentz invariant theory with a vacuum that breaks it? Can someone point me to the original and alternate proofs of this theorem?

Also, is there any connection between CPT invariance and renormalizability?

This post has been migrated from (A51.SE)