Quantcast
  • Register
PhysicsOverflow is a next-generation academic platform for physicists and astronomers, including a community peer review system and a postgraduate-level discussion forum analogous to MathOverflow.

Welcome to PhysicsOverflow! PhysicsOverflow is an open platform for community peer review and graduate-level Physics discussion.

Please help promote PhysicsOverflow ads elsewhere if you like it.

News

PO is now at the Physics Department of Bielefeld University!

New printer friendly PO pages!

Migration to Bielefeld University was successful!

Please vote for this year's PhysicsOverflow ads!

Please do help out in categorising submissions. Submit a paper to PhysicsOverflow!

... see more

Tools for paper authors

Submit paper
Claim Paper Authorship

Tools for SE users

Search User
Reclaim SE Account
Request Account Merger
Nativise imported posts
Claim post (deleted users)
Import SE post

Users whose questions have been imported from Physics Stack Exchange, Theoretical Physics Stack Exchange, or any other Stack Exchange site are kindly requested to reclaim their account and not to register as a new user.

Public \(\beta\) tools

Report a bug with a feature
Request a new functionality
404 page design
Send feedback

Attributions

(propose a free ad)

Site Statistics

208 submissions , 166 unreviewed
5,145 questions , 2,265 unanswered
5,415 answers , 23,101 comments
1,470 users with positive rep
823 active unimported users
More ...

  Do spin correlations between $b$ and $b̄$ exist at all in $H → bb̄$, and can they survive parton showering?

+ 2 like - 0 dislike
169 views

I'm studying the CP structure of $H → bb̄$. At generator level (with parton showering on), any spin correlation between the $b$ and $b̄$ branches seems completely washed out — even when tracing the final $B$-hadrons back to the original quarks.

Here's why I thought there might have been something:

In $H → gg$, spin correlations between the two gluons do manifest, even after showering, as azimuthal correlations between subsequent splittings (e.g., when each gluon splits into q q̄, the angle between planes shows correlation — see Richardson/Webster, Spin Correlations in Parton Shower Simulations arXiv:1807.01955 and PanScales paper arXiv:2103.16526). I understand that this effect arises from the gluon's polarization state being preserved and transmitted into the angular distribution of subsequent splittings during showering.

However, PanScales explicitly footnotes that $H → qq̄$ does not manifest spin correlations:

That particular case, with a $qq̄$ hard process, would have zero correlation, but the correlation is non-zero for a $gg$ hard process.

Later PanScales work ("Soft spin correlations" arXiv:2111.01161) extends spin correlations beyond collinear limits (soft-wide-angle effects), but here, no mention of H → qq̄.

Thus: Is there any setup where spin correlations survive between the b and b̄ splittings of H → bb̄? Could going beyond the collinear limit help? Or are correlations inevitably lost during showering for a quark hard process?

I am also aware that parton showers like Herwig aim to resum soft and collinear emissions to all orders at leading-log (and sometimes next-to-leading-log) accuracy, and propagate spin correlations using algorithms like Collins-Knowles. However, these methods rely on collinear factorization and don't capture full spin entanglement beyond the soft/collinear limits. Is it conceivable that treating the decay as a full 3-body process (e.g., H → bb̄g), or employing a more complete spin-correlation algorithm, could restore any meaningful correlation between the b and b̄ branches?

To be clear:

I’m asking whether anything from the b branch could in principle remain correlated with anything from the b̄ branch at generator level. I'm an undergraduate and tried working through spin density matrix calculations manually, but I'm unsure if I'm missing some key principle here. Any references, clarifications, or intuition would be really helpful.

This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2025-04-27 19:32 (UTC), posted by SE-user CallmeIshmael
asked Apr 27 in Theoretical Physics by CallmeIshmael (10 points) [ no revision ]

Your answer

Please use answers only to (at least partly) answer questions. To comment, discuss, or ask for clarification, leave a comment instead.
To mask links under text, please type your text, highlight it, and click the "link" button. You can then enter your link URL.
Please consult the FAQ for as to how to format your post.
This is the answer box; if you want to write a comment instead, please use the 'add comment' button.
Live preview (may slow down editor)   Preview
Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
If you are a human please identify the position of the character covered by the symbol $\varnothing$ in the following word:
$\varnothing\hbar$ysicsOverflow
Then drag the red bullet below over the corresponding character of our banner. When you drop it there, the bullet changes to green (on slow internet connections after a few seconds).
Please complete the anti-spam verification




user contributions licensed under cc by-sa 3.0 with attribution required

Your rights
...