How does adding rotation to a freely falling particle violate the Einstein equivalence principle?
I realize there is a similar post here:
An example of a theory that respects the Weak Equivalence Principle but violates the Einstein Equivalence Principle
but I failed to understand the response after reading it a number of times.
This post imported from StackExchange Physics at 2016-11-08 14:03 (UTC), posted by SE-user Optimus Prime