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What I want to know is why they are applying it to a holographic model knowing that it is quite possible the holographic principle is not likely to be correct as evidenced by experiment? Why is the holographic duality needed in the connection between QE and GR? Is it even necessary? Doesn't seem like it would be.
can you give a link to a paper about an experiment that falsifies the holographic principle? I have never heard about such a thing, so your comment makes me quite curious.
Of course I would like to see a review of the paper in this submission too, maybe for slightly different reasons though ...
@Dilaton: probably the not detection of the holographic noise, which is a theory extent.
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